Tuesday, September 6, 2011

Welcome to the Intro Geology course. For those who missed class today, we went over the syllabus and course policies. You can download the syllabus from the Intro geology main page.


On Wednesday, September 7, I will go over the steps of scientific inquiry and scientific method. In other words, we will talk about what does it mean to "do science"? If you haven't yet picked up your textbook from textbook rental, please do so at your earliest opportunity.

That's it for today.

Have a good first week of school


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Wednesday, September 7, 2011

Today we covered the steps of scientific method, and got to the point why we need to know geology. Tomorrow we will move on to the real stuff... the layers of the earth, earthquakes, plate tectonics and all those. The material we covered in class so far is pretty well explained in your text (pages 4-10), especially about why we need geology.
I'm going to link an article by Sara Andrews called
Why Study Geology? that was published in Geotimes in April 2000. This is not required reading for this course, but I think some of you might enjoy reading this.

Some of you might be interested in this on-line publication about the Nature of Science and Scientific Methods. This is developed and distributed by the Geological Society of America Education and Outreach program. This article describes in detail what we talked about in class today.

Review questions for scientific methods You may have to refer to your class notes from the PowerPoint presentation as well as your textbook (pages 4-10, 30-33) for the correct answers.

  1. The goal of all scientific inquiry (or scientific method) is:
    • World dominion
    • To make everyone rich and happy
    • World peace
    • Predicting natural events based on known patterns
    • None of the above
  2. Which one of the following is NOT a part of the the process of scientific method?
    • Observation
    • Opinion
    • Hypothesis
    • Theory
    • All of the above are part of the process of scientific method
  3. A scientific hypothesis is:
    • Used to explain observed facts as best as possible
    • Simple guesswork
    • Just another name for scientific theory
    • All of the above
    • None of the above
  4. A scientific theory must be:
    • Based on confirmed observations
    • Able to explain ALL observations
    • Consistent with every observation made and with every other scientific principle
    • Internally consistent
    • All of the above
  5. After data have been analyzed, tentative explanations or solutions proposed based on the data are called:
    • a guess
    • an observation of a phenomenon
    • a hypothesis
    • a concept that has been tested reproducibly and is likely to be true
    • a law of nature
  6. A hypothesis that passes repeated tests ultimately becomes:
    • a guess
    • an observation of a phenomenon
    • a first, tentative idea to explain a phenomenon
    • a theory
    • a law of nature
  7. What steps are involved in having a hypothesis become an established theory?
    • a United Nations scientific panel votes on whether the hypothesis is accepted
    • a U.S. government agency votes on whether the hypothesis is accepted
    • the hypothesis is consistent with new data and investigations used to test its predictions
    • the hypothesis makes sense when explained by politicians
    • none of the above steps are involved
  8. Which of the following is data (meaning actual observation) rather than an interpretation?
    • recent volcanism at Yellowstone is related to the process that caused the low topography
    • there is an area of low topography southwest of Yellowstone National Park
    • volcanism in Yellowstone overlies an area of hotter-than-average mantle
    • the low topography southwest of Yellowstone formed when North America moved over a hot spot
    • All of the above are actual observations
  9. Which of the following is data (meaning actual observation) rather than an interpretation?
    • some trees along Yellowstone Lake were flooded when the land north of the lake rose because of magma at depth
    • rising and sinking of the land around Yellowstone is related to underlying magma
    • the ages of volcanic centers near Yellowstone indicate that North America is moving southwest over the mantle
    • all of the above are data rather than interpretations
    • all of the above are interpretations rather than data
  10. A key step in developing a new explanation is:
    • making observations about a place or process
    • asking questions about the observations
    • proposing an interpretation that can be tested
    • collecting new observations to test predictions
    • all of the above are important steps for developing a new explanation
  11. A knowledge of geology is necessary when studying:
    • Natural resources
    • Natural Hazards
    • The environment
    • The oceans
    • All of the above answers are correct
  12. Which of the following is probably least at risk for geologic hazards?
    • next to a river in low areas
    • near an active fault
    • on soils that gently expand when wet
    • on gentle slopes away from mountains
    • close to, but upwind of, an active volcano

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to those questions.

That's it for today.
As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


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Friday, September 9, 2011


Before I add any more questions today, here is the link to the video
Hurricanes: New Orleans under Threat I showed in class this week. Feel free to view, download and share it.
We also talked about meteorites for a bit... those of you who are interested, check out this Geotimes article: The story of a meteorite. A small scale meteorite impact may not be as rare as you might think.
This video segment on Youtube talks about the meteorite that fell in Wisconsin last April. Enjoy.

Yesterday we started talking about the three basic layers of the earth, the crust, the mantle and the core... it is reasonably well explained in your text (pages 8-9) . Review questions for layers of the earth You will need your class notes and the textbook (pages 8-9).

  1. The distance from Earth's center to its outer surface (that is, the radius of the solid Earth) is approximately
    • 637 km
    • 6,370 km
    • 63,700 km
    • 637,000 km
    • 6,370,000 km
  2. Listed from Earth's center outward, the major divisions of Earth are
    • crust, mantle, outer core, inner core
    • mantle, crust, outer core, inner core
    • inner core, outer core, crust, mantle
    • outer core, inner core, mantle, crust
    • inner core, outer core, mantle, crust
  3. Which of the following Earth layers is the thinnest?
    • oceanic crust
    • upper mantle
    • lower mantle
    • outer core
    • inner core
  4. Which of the following Earth layers is the thickest?
    • continental crust
    • oceanic crust
    • mantle
    • outer core
    • All of the above layers are of equal thickness
  5. The two major types of crust are oceanic crust and_______
    • continental crust
    • lithosphere
    • convergent crust
    • thin crust
    • Asthenosphere
  6. The crust is _______ beneath the continents relative to the ocean.
    • thinner
    • thicker
    • the same thickness
    • the same composition
    • None of the above
  7. The oceanic crust is denser than the continental crust because:
    • The pressure of the water on top of it makes it denser
    • It is harder than continental crust
    • It has denser minerals and rocks
    • It is thicker than the continental crust
    • None of the above is correct
  8. Which of the following is NOT an important difference between continents and oceans?
    • thickness of the crust
    • composition of the crust
    • density of the crust
    • whether it is part of the lithosphere
    • elevation
  9. The thickness of Earth's crust is ___ .
    • approximately the same as the thickness of the mantle
    • slightly greater than the thickness of the mantle
    • slightly less than the thickness of the mantle
    • much greater than the thickness of the mantle
    • much smaller than the thickness of the mantle
  10. We know about the composition of the core of the earth from ____________.
    • meteorites
    • the study of L waves
    • the study of Mars
    • deep-sea drilling
    • discontinuity studies
  11. The principle of isostasy refers to:
    • difference in the strength of the mantle versus the crust
    • the relationship between regional elevations and thickness of crust
    • how the outer core differs from the inner core
    • how the upper mantle differs from the lower mantle
    • how the planets revolve around the sun in the solar system
  12. What is the most likely reason why a region is higher than adjacent regions?
    • there is a hot spot beneath it
    • the crust is thicker
    • it is underlain by oceanic crust
    • the asthenosphere is hotter
    • the crust is hotter
  13. Which of the following is NOT a possible reason for why a region is higher in elevation than adjacent regions?
    • the lithosphere is hotter
    • it has continental crust, but adjacent regions have oceanic crust
    • the crust is thicker
    • the crust is more dense
    • All of the above are possible reasons for causing higher elevation

If you can't answer any of these questions right away, please ask me in class. You can also test yourself here and find the correct answers to those questions.

That's it for today.
As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Monday, September 12, 2011

Next week's lab assignments

Here is the
pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of September 12). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Please bring a PENCIL to the labs next week. I will take off points if you do not use a pencil on your lab manual.

Review questions for earthquakes, part I

  1. Which one of the following is NOT true?
    • When a wave passes from one medium to another, it either reflects or refracts (bends)
    • If the medium remains the same, Waves move out from their source as progressively larger concentric spheres
    • The velocity of a wave depends on the medium it is moving through
    • Energy from an earthquake is released in the form of seiemic waves
    • All of the above are true facts
  2. What is NOT true about seismic waves?
    • most seismic waves can be described as a series of repeating crests and troughs
    • the material within the wave moves long distances along with the wave
    • some seismic waves travel on the surface and are called surface waves
    • some surface waves shuffle material side to side while others move material up and down
    • some seismic waves travel through the interior of Earth
  3. The seismic waves which can move through the interior of the earth are collectively called
    • Body waves
    • Surface waves
    • Radio waves
    • Harmonic waves
    • Sine waves
  4. Which seismic wave is fastest?
    • Love waves
    • Rayleigh waves
    • S-waves
    • P waves
    • Surface waves
  5. The bending of seismic waves as they pass from one material to another is _____.
    • seismic refraction
    • seismic reflection
    • seismic deflection
    • seismic attenuation
    • seismic waves don't bend when they pass through different materials
  6. P-waves are also known as:
    • Love waves
    • Shear waves
    • Rayleigh waves
    • Compressional waves
    • Secondary waves
  7. Secondary waves are also known as:
    • Surface waves
    • Shear waves
    • Compressional waves
    • Love waves
    • Rayleigh waves
  8. When P-waves travel from left to right, the material through which the waves travel:
    • Also moves from left to right (each particle bumps into the next particle)
    • Moves up-and-down (each particle do a "standing wave")
    • Moves along the ground like a snake
    • Makes the surface move in random patterns
    • None of the above
  9. The characteristics of P-waves include:
    • they compress and then expand the rock in the direction the wave travels
    • they are generated near the surface and only compress the rock as they travel
    • they travel slower than other seismic waves
    • they displace the rock back and forth in a direction that is perpendicular to their travel direction
    • they cannot be recorded on seismographs
  10. When S-waves travel from left to right, the material through which the waves travel:
    • Also moves from left to right (each particle bumps into the next particle)
    • Moves up-and-down (each particle do a "standing wave")
    • Moves along the ground like a snake
    • Make the surface move in random patterns
    • None of the above
  11. The characteristics of S-waves include:
    • they can travel through liquids
    • they shear rock from side to side or up and down
    • they displace the rock in a direction that is perpendicular to their travel direction
    • both a and b
    • both b and c
  12. P waves can travel _________
    • faster than S waves
    • only through solids
    • through solids and liquids
    • both a and b
    • both a and c
  13. Which one of the following statements is true concerning primary waves?
    • travel only in solids
    • travel faster than S waves
    • are responsible for most of the destruction associated with an earthquake
    • cannot be recorded on a seismograph
    • travel slower than surface waves
  14. S waves ____________.
    • are the same as surface waves
    • travel through solids, liquids, and gases
    • are slower than P-waves
    • are the only waves recorded on seismographs
    • are slower than surface waves
  15. The instrument used to record earthquakes is called:
    • Seismogram
    • Seismograph
    • Richter scale
    • Mercalli scale
    • Travel-time curve
  16. The actual record (the paper record of an actual earthquake) is called:
    • Seismogram
    • Seismograph
    • Richter scale
    • Mercalli scale
    • Travel-time curve
  17. S waves are ALWAYS second to arrive at a recording seismograph because:
    • they travel in a straight line
    • they are inherently slower than P waves
    • they are emitted from the epicenter
    • they are generated later than P waves
    • they do not pass through liquids

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


That's it for now.


As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Wednesday, September 14, 2011

Here is the seismic velocity profile I was talking about in class yesterday. This figure in its original context can be accessed via this link. Scroll down to figure 1.
And for those who are interested, here is the Biography of Inge Lehmann by Bruce Bolt. Inge Lehmann discovered the earth's solid inner core from earthquake data.
Here is a nice summary of all the indirect lines of evidence for how we know what is in the core of the earth.
More information about the earth's core:
The pressure at the boundary between earth's outer core and inner core is about 330 GPa (more than 3000,000 times the pressure at the earth's surface). The temperature at that point is more than 5000 degrees Kelvin (subtract 273.15 degrees from that number to get degrees centigrade).
You might be interested to read this article published in the journal Science for more information about how those numbers were determined.

I am going to post the rest of the questions for your test next week. Here are two sets of questions... we already covered earthquakes and layers of the earth. the rest of the questions (Earthquake part II) are based on topics discussed in class today and Thursday.

Review questions for earthquakes and layers of the earth. Yesterday's lecture notes and pages 8-9, 358-359 will be helpful

  1. What is one way of determining the depth to the base of the crust (AKA crust-mantle boundary)?
    • drilling very deep wells along the San Andreas fault
    • observing the deeper parts of underground mines
    • observing whether seismic waves that travel through the crust arrived after those that traveled through the mantle
    • using P- and S-waves to locate boundaries between molten and solid rock
    • none of the above
  2. The Moho is the boundary between the ____________.
    • upper and lower mantle
    • mantle and crust
    • mantle and outer core
    • outer core and inner core
    • low velocity zone and inner core
  3. The interpretation that the earth's outer core is liquid comes from:
    • density calculations
    • studies of meteorites
    • P wave shadow zone
    • S wave shadow zone
    • the outer core isn't liquid
  4. The lithosphere contains__________________
    • continental and oceanic crust
    • both types of crust and the uppermost mantle
    • weak part of the upper mantle
    • upper and lower mantle
    • lower mantle and outer core
  5. The crust and upper mantle form the _____.
    • lithosphere
    • asthenosphere
    • inner core
    • outer core
    • moho discontinuity
    Hmmm... these two questions are same, actually, just phrased differently
  6. A seismograph located 120o from a earthquake epicenter would receive:
    • P, S and surface waves
    • P and surface waves
    • S and surface waves
    • only P and S waves
    • only surface waves
  7. As P waves encounter the outer core, they:
    • cannot pass through
    • turn into surface waves
    • slow down
    • speed up
    • none of the above happens
  8. The layer at the core-mantle boundary is known as the _______.
    • moho
    • asthenosphere
    • ULVZ
    • perovskite zone
    • It has no specific name.
  9. The diameter of the earth's core is determined by calculations based on _____.
    • P and S wave shadow zones
    • deep drill holes
    • gravitational anomalies
    • heat flow conditions
    • magnetic anomalies
  10. The fact that there are areas within the Earth that don't let S-waves to pass through tells us that:
    • It is comprised of a variety of different rock types.
    • A large part of the core is liquid.
    • There are voids within the Earth.
    • The S- waves travel sporadically through the earth
    • Not much, our equipment is not sensitive enough to record the data.
  11. Which of the following does not occur at the core-mantle boundary:
    • temperature increases
    • density increases
    • convection
    • P waves are refracted
    • S waves pass through
  12. S waves are not transmitted through this Earth layer.
    • continental crust
    • oceanic crust
    • outer core
    • mantle
    • low velocity zone
  13. The P- and S-wave shadow zone is caused by ____________.
    • Mantle convection
    • Earth’s asthenosphere
    • Earth’s core
    • Magnetic reversal
    • None of the above
  14. The asthenosphere is located _________.
    • within the crust
    • in the upper mantle
    • between the mantle and outer core
    • at the Moho
    • within the outer core

If you can't answer any of these questions right away, please ask me in class. You can also test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Review questions for earthquakes part II. these questions are mostly based on today's and tomorrow's lecture and your textbook. Relevant textbook pages would be mentioned during lecture.

  1. The point within the earth where earthquakes originate is called:
    • Fault
    • Epicenter
    • Crack
    • Focus or hypocenter
    • None of the above
  2. Epicenter is the point:
    • On the fault plane where earthquakes originate
    • On the earth's surface directly above the focus of an earthquake
    • Within the mantle directly below the focus
    • At the recording station where earthquakes are located and measured
    • On the seismogram that markes the arrival time of the P-waves
  3. The instant an earthquake wave arrives at the recording station is known as:
    • Earthquake moment
    • Travel time
    • Arrival time
    • Amplitude
    • Earthquake magnitude
  4. How do we determine the location of a recent earthquake?
    • measure the amplitude of surface waves in a single station
    • point video cameras at the landscape to record which way the surface moves
    • use seismic records from three or more stations
    • read old newspaper accounts of how the land moved
    • none of the above
  5. At least _____ recording station(s) are needed to precisely pinpoint the location of an earthquake epicenter
    • one
    • two
    • three
    • five
    • six
  6. Travel time curves are used for:
    • Measuring earthquake magnitude
    • Measuring the distance between the earthquake epicenter and the recording station
    • Measuring the damage caused by the earthquake
    • Measuring the amplitude of surface waves
    • Measuring the arrival times of the body waves
  7. The difference in arrival time between P and S waves is equivalent to:
    • depth of focus
    • intensity
    • distance from epicenter
    • amplitude
    • amount of damage
  8. The Modified Mercalli scale is used to measure:
    • Earthquake intensity
    • Earthquake magnitude
    • Earthquake amplitude
    • Earthquake duration
    • Earthquake depth
  9. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
    • Modified Mercalli Scale measures earthquake intensity based on the damage caused by the earthquake
    • Modified Mercalli Scale is useful for designing and planning cities
    • Modified Mercalli Scale is expressed on a scale of I to XII
    • Modified Mercalli Scale measures earthquake magnitude
    • Modified Mercalli Scale is subjective
  10. The Richter magnitude of an earthquake is determined from the ____________.
    • duration of the earthquake
    • intensity of the earthquake
    • length of the seismic record
    • arrival time of P and S waves
    • measurement of the amplitude of the S- waves
  11. If the measured amplitude of vibration of a rock is 1 cm for a magnitude 4 earthquake then during a magnitude 5 earthquake the rocks will move ______ .
    • 2 cm
    • 4 cm
    • 8 cm
    • 10 cm
    • 20 cm
  12. An earthquake with a magnitude of 6 on the Richter scale releases about _________ times more energy than one with a magnitude of 5.
    • 5
    • 10
    • 15
    • 30
    • 45
  13. Besides Richter magnitude, seismologists now use _____ to calculate energy released during earthquakes.
    • seismic traces
    • moment magnitude
    • amplitude of S-waves
    • amplitude of P-waves
    • gravity inversions
  14. Which of the following information is not necessary to calculate seismic moment (or moment magnitude)?
    • Duration of an earthquake
    • Amount of slip along the fault plane caused by the earthquake
    • The surface area of the broken rock layers
    • The strength of the rocks disrupted by the earthquake
    • All of the above are necessary to calculate seismic moment
  15. Surface waves cause most property damage because:
    • they travel slowly and produce greatest ground movement
    • they are the first to arrive at any point
    • they are emitted from the epicenter
    • they vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation
    • they vibrate parallel to the direction of wave propagation
  16. Love waves produce ground motion similar to:
    • a slinky (particles move side-to-side)
    • a standing baseball wave (particles move Up-and-down through the entire BODY of the material)
    • a snake (side-to-side along the surface ONLY)
    • ripples (up-and-down along the surface ONLY)
    • None of the above descriptions fit the motion of Love waves
  17. Rayleigh waves produce ground motion similar to:
    • a slinky (particles move side-to-side)
    • a standing baseball wave (particles move up-and-down through the entire BODY of the material)
    • a snake (side-to-side along the surface ONLY)
    • ripples (up-and-down along the surface ONLY)
    • None of the above descriptions fit the motion of Rayleigh waves
  18. Which of the following types of faults does NOT generate earthquakes?
    • normal fault
    • reverse fault
    • thrust fault
    • strike-slip fault
    • all types faults can generate earthquakes

You can also test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.

Any question posted during the period between Wednesday, September 7, to today, September 14 (both dates inclusive) is fair game for the test on September 19 (repeated on September 22).

As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

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Monday, September 19, 2011

Just for your information, I will lecture tomorrow and Wednesday, but NO lecture on Thursday because of the test re-take. Labs will be held during the scheduled time and days.

Couple earthquake related links for you:

I will post next week's pre-lab and lab activities later this week.
As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Thursday, September 27, 2011

Next week's lab assignments

Here is the
pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of September 25). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

By the way, please bring a calculator to the lab next week (week of September 25) and of course, a pencil. I will take off points if you do not use a pencil on your lab assignment.

This lab is graph intensive, so I'd recommend you print it out from one of the computer labs on campus and make sure you can see all the lines of the graphs properly on your hard copy. Plus that way you'll also be able to print on both sides of the sheet and conserve paper.


Moving on to other things...

First a couple of links...

If you are interested, check out the historical perspective of the Plate Tectonics Theory here. More information about Alfred Wegener can be accessed here as well.

For those who are interested, here is the Earth History website designed and maintained by Chris Scotese. This website has a lot of plate tectonic maps through the geologic time (not just Pangaea) including what might happen to present day plates and continents in future. The animations take a while to load, but once loaded, they are a lot of fun to play with. Enjoy!


As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

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Monday, September 26, 2011

Here is the view of a tsunami from inside a car that I showed in class today. Enjoy.

Review questions for continental drift hypothesis

  1. The man who pioneered the continental drift hypothesis was ____________.
    • J. Tuzo Wilson
    • Harry Hess
    • D.H. Matthews
    • Fred Vine
    • Alfred Wegener
  2. The geographic distribution of land dwelling and freshwater fossil species on South America and Africa provides evidence that ____________
    • England was covered by a shallow sea in the past
    • migration between North America and England was possible
    • the Pacific Ocean did not exist during this time period
    • South America and Africa were once joined
    • a land bridge existed between Australia and India
  3. Late Paleozoic continental glaciation provided important evidence favoring continental drift. This evidence was gathered from ____________.
    • all the continents
    • North America and Europe
    • Greenland, North America, and Asia
    • South America, Africa, Antarctica, and India
    • North America and South America
  4. Evidence of widespread continental glaciation during Late Paleozoic can also be explained by a period of global Ice Age. This hypothesis was rejected by Wegener because:
    • He found evidence of land living reptiles in South America and Africa
    • He found fossil evidence of warm water corals and coal swamps that could not form during an Ice Age
    • He found that mountain chains across the Atlantic Ocean match
    • He found similar rock types on South America and Africa
    • He had no evidence to disprove it. He just wanted to reject any alternate explanation except his own.
  5. Pangaea is ____________.
    • another name given the Alaskan earthquake of 1964
    • a portion of the mid-Atlantic ridge
    • a German word for "plate tectonics"
    • the name of a supercontinent meaning "All Land"
    • a name of a fossil found in both Africa and South America that led scientists to believe these continents were once connected
  6. Which data were used to develop the hypothesis of continental drift?
    • the fit of the continents
    • the distribution of fossils
    • the distribution of glacial deposits and directions of glacial scratch marks
    • all of the above
    • a and b only
  7. Which one of the following evidence was not used by Wegener to support continental drift hypothesis?
    • fossils
    • marine magnetic anomalies
    • fit of the continents
    • ancient glacial features
    • rock type similarities on different continents
  8. The Main reason Wegener's Continental Drift hypothesis was rejected by the scientific community was:
    • A global Ice Age hypothesis can also satisfactorily explain ALL evidence supporting Continental Drift
    • Wegener could not satisfactorily demonstrate how or why the continents moved
    • The hypothesis required that the entire Earth was once frozen
    • There was evidence of land bridges joining Antarctica and India
    • Continents do not "drift" like clouds across the sky. They have been at their current position since they were formed

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Review questions for earth's magnetic field

  1. What ideas brought a renewed interest to the idea of continental drift?
    • evidence of the presence of Mid-Atlantic Ridge
    • evidence that the entire Earth was once frozen
    • evidence that similar meteorites fall on different continents
    • evidence that a large meteorite caused extinction of the dinosaurs
    • both c and d
  2. The earth's magnetic field is produced by:
    • mantle plumes
    • volcanism on the earth's surface
    • radioactive decay within the mantle
    • convecting metal in the outer core
    • influence of the sun
  3. When a magnetic material is heated above a certain temperature it loses its magnetism. That temperature is called the ____________,
    • Curie Point
    • Magnetic position
    • Critical temperature
    • Isopoint
    • Melting point
  4. When an iron-bearing mineral is heated above a certain temperature, it loses its magnetism. This temperature is about ____________.
    • 110oC
    • 220oC
    • 340oC
    • 580oC
    • 1200oC
  5. Which of the following is not true?
    • the magnetic poles have reversed periodically in earth history
    • magnetism is imparted to igneous rocks at the time of their formation
    • virtually all rock types preserve some paleomagnetic signal
    • magnetic field reversals occur about every 500,000 years
    • there have been long periods of no magnetic field
  6. Geomagnetic reversals________________________.
    • provided strong evidence for seafloor spreading
    • caused all the mass extinctions in recorded geologic history
    • destroyed compasses ane electronic equipments
    • confirmed the existence of subduction zones
    • cause the movements of plates
  7. The pattern of magnetic anomalies on the sea floor most resembles ____________.
    • scales on a fish
    • stripes on a zebra
    • spots on a leopard
    • splotches on a giraffe
    • warts on a toad
  8. Rocks show positive magnetic anomaly when:
    • They record the normal polarity
    • They record reverse polarity
    • They contain unusually high amounts of magnetic minerals
    • They contain unusually low amounts of magnetic minerals
    • They have a certain chemical composition
  9. The apparent movement of the magnetic poles through geologic time is called ______.
    • Mantle plume motion
    • Polar Current
    • Sea Floor Spreading
    • Continental Drift
    • Polar Wandering

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Wednesday, September 28, 2011

Here is the UNAVCO Jules Verne Jr. web site where you can see real GPS data that are used to determine plate motion directions and rates.

Here is the Jules Verne Voyager: Earth link... this one is more precise and shows an advanced interactive map.

Review questions for plate tectonics theory.

  1. Hess's principal contribution to the hypothesis of sea-floor spreading was the proposal of deep mantle _____.
    • contraction
    • spreading centers
    • convergent boundaries
    • transform faults
    • convection
  2. According to sea-floor spreading hypothesis, the age of the sea-floor _______________.
    • should increase as the water becomes deeper
    • should increase toward the trench
    • should decrease as the ocean waters become deeper and colder
    • should decrease toward the trench
    • the sea-floor is the same age throughout
  3. By deep sea drilling it was seen that the oldest rocks on the ocean floors occur:
    • near mid-oceanic ridges
    • near deep-ocean trenches
    • next to continents anywhere
    • All rocks on the ocean floor are of the same age
    • None of the above are true
  4. Symmetrical bands of normal and reversed polarity on either sides of a mid-ocean ridge prove:
    • that mid-ocean ridges are convergent boundaries
    • that the mid-ocean ridges are transform faults
    • that the fracture zones are actually transform faults
    • that the mid-ocean ridges are divergent boundaries
    • polar wandering
  5. The magnetic strips of the sea floor:
    • record the recent history of asteroid bombardment to planet Earth
    • are not symmetrical on either side of a divergent boundary
    • record the history of faulting in plate interiors
    • are created as magma crystallizes at convergent boundaries
    • are created as magma crystallizes at divergent boundaries
  6. The age of the oldest rocks on the sea floor is approximately _____ .
    • 30 -50 million years
    • 100-120 million years
    • 160 -180 million years
    • 240 -260 million years
    • 300 -350 million years
  7. The lithospheric plates includes rocks of the crust and the ________.
    • outer core
    • asthenosphere
    • uppermost mantle
    • lower mantle
    • mantle plumes
  8. The asthenosphere is ____________.
    • a cool, rigid zone directly above the lithosphere
    • the name given to the molten outer core
    • a zone below the lithosphere corresponding to the seismic Low Velocity Zone
    • another name for the lower mantle
    • none of the above
  9. Plates move apart at ____________.
    • divergent plate boundaries
    • convergent plate boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • all of these
    • none of these
  10. Plates move towards each other along ____________.
    • divergent plate boundaries
    • convergent plate boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • all of these
    • none of these
  11. Plates slide past one another at _________.
    • divergent plate boundaries
    • convergent plate boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • all of these
    • none of these

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.
As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Thursday, September 29, 2011


Next week's lab assignments

Here is the
pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of February 14). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

I will take off points if you do not use a pencil on your lab assignment.

This lab uses a world map in color as well as graphs, so I'd recommend you print at least the map page using the color printer in a computer lab on campus and make sure you can see all the lines of the graphs properly on your hard copy. Plus that way you'll also be able to print on both sides of the sheet and conserve paper.

There is NO make-up lab next week. Please come to one of the regularly scheduled labs.

Lecture for Tuesday, October 4 is cancelled due to a meeting.


Review questions on plate boundaries
  1. New oceanic crust forms at _________.
    • divergent plate boundaries
    • convergent plate boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • all of these
    • none of these
  2. Oceanic crust is destroyed along _______.
    • divergent plate boundaries
    • convergent plate boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • all of these
    • none of these
  3. Oceanic crust is neither created nor destroyed along this type of boundary.
    • divergent plate boundaries
    • convergent plate boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • all of these
    • none of these
  4. Convergent boundaries are zones where plates ____________.
    • slide past each other
    • move towards each other
    • move away from each other
    • cause seafloor spreading
    • none of the above
  5. Divergent boundaries are zones where plates _________.
    • move towards each other
    • move away from each other
    • slide past each other
    • move at an angle towards each other
    • do not move at all
  6. This type of plate boundary cannot ever have volcanoes.
    • divergent plate boundaries
    • convergent plate boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • all of these
    • none of these
  7. Transform faults always form _____ to the spreading direction.
    • perpendicular
    • at an acute angle
    • at an obtuse angle
    • parallel
    • horizontal
  8. Although transform faults offset ridge crests, sliding motion between plates only occurs:
    • parallel to the ridge crests
    • as spreading approaches a trench
    • at convergent boundaries
    • when there are deep focus earthquakes
    • between the ridge crests
  9. This type of plate boundary has deep focus earthquakes.
    • divergent plate boundaries
    • convergent plate boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • all of these
    • none of these
  10. Deep ocean trenches are associated with ________
    • rifting
    • sub-oceanic erosion
    • subduction zones
    • transform fault offsets
    • submarine extension
  11. The Himalayan Mountains were produced along:
    • a divergent boundary
    • an ocean-ocean convergent boundary
    • a continental-continental convergent boundary
    • an oceanic-continental convergent boundary
    • a transform fault
  12. Iceland is located along:
    • a divergent boundary
    • an ocean-ocean convergent boundary
    • a continental-continental convergent boundary
    • an oceanic-continental convergent boundary
    • a transform fault
  13. Japan is associated with this type of plate boundary.
    • a divergent boundary
    • an ocean-ocean convergent boundary
    • a continental-continental convergent boundary
    • an oceanic-continental convergent boundary
    • a transform fault
  14. The Mid-Atlantic Ridge is an example of:
    • divergent boundaries
    • ocean-ocean convergent boundaries
    • continental-continental convergent boundaries
    • oceanic-continental convergent boundaries
    • transform faults
  15. San Andreas fault is an example of this type of plate boundary.
    • a divergent boundary
    • an ocean-ocean convergent boundary
    • a continental-continental convergent boundary
    • an oceanic-continental convergent boundary
    • a transform fault
  16. Where is the San Andreas Fault?
    • The Andes mountains
    • West Tennessee
    • Washington and Oregon
    • Southern California
    • The Himalayan Mountains
  17. The Red Sea was formed along:
    • a divergent boundary
    • an ocean-ocean convergent boundary
    • a continental-continental convergent boundary
    • an oceanic-continental convergent boundary
    • a transform fault
  18. Volcanic island arcs are associated with:
    • divergent boundaries
    • ocean-ocean convergent boundaries
    • continental-continental convergent boundaries
    • oceanic-continental convergent boundaries
    • transform faults
  19. Accretionary wedges (or prisms) are formed at:
    • Transform boundaries
    • Mid-ocean ridges
    • Continent-continent collision zones (e.g.Himalayas)
    • Subduction zones
    • None of the above are correct
  20. A backarc basin can occur only at:
    • Ocean-continent convergent boundaries
    • Ocean-ocean convergent boundaries
    • Continent-continent convergent boundaries
    • All of the above types of convergent boundaries
    • Both choices "a" and "c" are correct
  21. The Andes mountains were generated at a(n) ____________ boundary.
    • divergent
    • convergent (oceanic-oceanic)
    • convergent (continental-continental)
    • convergent (oceanic-continental)
    • transform fault
  22. Why does the Tibetan Plateau have a high elevation?
    • transform faulting
    • seafloor spreading
    • continental rifting
    • continental collision
    • hot-spot activity
  23. Why is the Mid-Atlantic ridge in the center of the Atlantic ocean?
    • subduction is consuming seafloor beneath both adjacent continents
    • seafloor is added to both sides during seafloor spreading
    • subduction has occurred under one and then another of the adjacent continents
    • seafloor spreading has stopped in this area
    • None of the above
  24. Which of the following is most likely associated with a divergent plate boundary?
    • oceanic trench
    • mountain belt or island arc
    • mid-ocean ridge
    • a and b only
    • none of the above
  25. Which of the following is most likely associated with an oceanic transform plate boundary?
    • oceanic trench
    • mountain belt or island arc
    • mid-ocean ridge
    • all of the above
    • a and b only
  26. Mid-ocean ridges are higher than surrounding oceanic crust primarily because:
    • two plates are colliding
    • the crust is thicker
    • the crust is stronger
    • transform faulting uplifts the rocks
    • the lithosphere is thinner and hotter
  27. The main way that new oceanic crust is created is by:
    • eruption of lavas and solidification of magmas at depth
    • sediment scraped off a subducting slab
    • continents that subside below sea level
    • continental rifting, before the continents separate
    • magmas along an ocean-continent convergent boundary
  28. Which of the following is associated with a mid-ocean ridge?
    • an island arc
    • magma produced as the mantles rise up
    • melting of the subducting plate
    • lower topography than surrounding seafloor
    • High mountain chains like the Himalayas
  29. A continent has an oceanic trench offshore of its coast. Which of the following is probably not present along this side of the continent?
    • a mountain belt
    • earthquakes
    • volcanoes
    • melting along a mid-ocean ridge
    • subduction of an oceanic plate
  30. Which of the following features is associated with a deep oceanic trench?
    • mid-ocean ridge
    • linear island chain
    • seamount
    • island arc
    • All of the above
  31. Which of the following is most likely associated with a convergent plate boundary?
    • oceanic trench
    • mountain belt or island arc
    • mid-ocean ridge
    • both a and b
    • none of the above

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Wednesday, October 5, 2011


I will be out of town for Geological Society of America Annual Meeting October 6-12. There will be NO class or lab during that time. The class will meet again on Thursday, October 13.
Do your take-home assignment/quiz posted on D2L during that time.

This web site shows some really cool photographs of fossil footprints from Antarctica taken by a geologist. We geologists simply LOVE what we do, and this slideshow bears testimonial to that sentiment. Enjoy!


Rest of the questions on plate tectonics.

  1. Hot spots are believed to originate ______.
    • when rock is subducted
    • because of concentrations of radioactive material in the upper mantle
    • as columns of hot material rising through the deep mantle
    • during magnetic reversals
    • by chemical reactions in the asthenosphere
  2. The formation of the Hawaiian Islands is associated with ____________.
    • divergent boundaries
    • convergent boundaries
    • transform fault boundaries
    • no plate boundary of any kind
    • both divergent boundaries and convergent boundaries
  3. Which of the following would not be regarded as proving plate movement:
    • pattern of magnetic anomalies across a ridge crest
    • lack of old rocks on the sea floor
    • matching of the age of the magnetic anomaly and age of the sea floor
    • Island chains over a hot spot
    • the presence of a magnetic field
  4. The age relationships of the Hawaiian Islands confirm that the northern Pacific plate is currently moving:
    • northwest
    • east
    • north
    • south
    • they suggest that the northern Pacific plate isn't moving
  5. Which of the following is a proposed mechanism for plate motion?
    • Meteor impacts
    • Earthquake energy
    • Slab pull
    • Gravity sliding
    • Benioff drive
  6. The energy that causes plates to move is derived from ____________.
    • Tidal forces
    • Solar energy
    • Earth's internal heat
    • Electrical energy
    • Magnetic energy

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Thursday, October 13, 2011

There is no pre-lab for the lab on the week of October 16 (next week). you will have a lab quiz after the lab instead.
You will need a pencil (as usual) for the lab next week.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.


As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page



Monday, October 17, 2011

Review questions on stress, strain and folds.

  1. Stress is _______.
    • force per unit of area at a particular point
    • change in volume
    • mountain building process
    • Response of rocks to plate tectonics
    • deformation due to uplift
  2. What are the three main types of stress?
    • compression, tension, and shear
    • confining stress, deformation, and folding
    • convergence, divergence, and transform faulting
    • positive, negative, and neutral
    • none of the above
  3. If a deformed body recovers its original shape as stress is released, it is said to be:
    • brittle
    • elastic
    • plastic
    • tensional
    • compressional
  4. Which type of strain molds or bends a body that does not return to its original shape after stress release?
    • Elastic
    • Brittle
    • Plastic
    • Rubber
    • Tactile
  5. Once the elastic limit of a material is reached ____________.
    • The material may break
    • The material may melt
    • The material may deform permanently
    • All of these
    • Both a and/or c can happen
  6. Which of the following is most likely to occur at deeper (depth >10 km) levels within the earth?
    • ductile behavior
    • brittle deformation
    • fracturing
    • only minor changes in minerals
    • none of the above
  7. Which of the following combinations should favor ductile rather than brittle deformation?
    • high temperature and high confining pressure
    • low confining pressure and low temperature
    • high confining pressure and low temperature
    • high temperature and low confining pressure
    • none of the above combinations favor ductile deformation
  8. What type of stress is the cause of most folding?
    • tension
    • compression
    • confining pressure
    • fluid pressure
    • all of the above
  9. Which of the following would not be characteristic of an anticline:
    • plastic strain response
    • beds dip away from the axial plane
    • it is "U" shaped
    • oldest beds in center
    • opens downward
  10. Folded U-shaped structures with the youngest layer in the center are called ____________.
    • basins
    • domes
    • monoclines
    • anticlines
    • synclines
  11. The angle of dip is measured relative to ________.
    • the horizontal
    • the vertical
    • north
    • east
    • the equator
  12. If the DIRECTION OF DIP of a bed is east, its STRIKE DIRECTION must be:
    • due west
    • north-south
    • North 45° East
    • North 45° West
    • dip direction of a bed is not related to the strike direction

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Review questions for faults and orogeny.
  1. Tensional forces combined with brittle deformation normally cause:
    • strike-slip faults
    • reverse faults
    • thrust faults
    • normal faults
    • recumbent faults
  2. The block overlying an inclined fault plane is the:
    • footwall
    • hanging wall
    • isoclinal wall
    • plunging wall
    • sheet wall
  3. When the rock above a fault plane moves down relative to the rock below, it is called:
    • reverse fault
    • normal fault
    • transform fault
    • strike-slip fault
    • none of these
  4. In a normal fault, the hanging-wall block has moved ______ relative to the footwall block.
    • up
    • down
    • side to side
    • up at a steep angle
    • down at a steep angle
  5. A low-angle reverse fault is referred to as a(n) ____________ fault.
    • normal
    • oblique
    • thrust
    • compressional
    • strike-slip
  6. Strike-slip faults ____________.
    • are faults where no movement has yet occurred
    • have mainly horizontal movement
    • have mainly vertical movement
    • are low angle reverse faults
    • none of these
  7. Orogeny is____________.
    • a theory that explains the formation of oblique faults
    • a general term meaning “mountain building process”
    • type of asymmetrical anticline
    • a mountain range in Asia
    • none of these
  8. What is the typical setting for fold and thrust belts (AKA mountain belts)?
    • associated with convergent plate boundaries
    • ocean-ocean divergent plate boundaries
    • continental rifts
    • transform faults
    • any of the above
  9. The Himalayas are:
    • the highest mountain range in the world and contain Earth’s highest peak
    • along the south flank of the Tibetan Plateau
    • underlain by abnormally thin lithosphere
    • an ancient mountain range with most uplift occurring 200 million years ago
    • both a and b
  10. Which of the following is NOT a setting in which regional mountain belts form?
    • continental collision
    • subduction zone
    • upwelling of the mantle
    • passive margin
    • the collision of India with Asia
  11. Which of the following is a characteristic of a terrane?
    • the boundaries of a terrane are generally major faults or shear zones
    • a terrane has the same sequence of rocks as adjacent areas
    • to be a terrane, the rocks must form in a deep marine environment
    • the layers and fossils in a terrane can be matched with those in adjacent areas
    • none of the above
  12. Which of the following is NOT a common setting in which a terrane originally forms?
    • oceanic plateau
    • island arc
    • oceanic crust
    • linear island chain
    • all of the above are common settings for a terrane

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Any question posted during the period between Monday, September 26, to today, October 17 (both dates inclusive) is fair game for the next test on October 24 and 27.


As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Friday, October 21, 2011

Next week's lab assignments

Here is the pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of February 28). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Please print out the pre-lab and the lab from the library or use a printer with adequate toner.



As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Friday, October 28, 2011

Next week's lab assignments

Here is the pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of October 30). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Please print out the pre-lab and the lab from the library or use a printer with adequate toner.



Review questions on magma formation

  1. Which of the following acts to keep a rock solid (instead of melting)?
    • an increase in temperature
    • an increase in the vibration within a lattice
    • an increase in confining pressure
    • all of the above
    • none of the above
  2. With increasing pressure (depth), the melting point of rocks and minerals generally _____
    • decreases
    • increases
    • does not change
    • becomes dependent on rock type
    • there is no definite relationship between melting point of a solid and change in pressure
  3. Which of the following happens along oceanic divergent boundaries?
    • oceanic crust moves toward the ridge in a conveyor-belt manner
    • most of the mantle is molten, not solid
    • solid asthenosphere rises as plates move apart
    • magma generated in the crust drips down into the mantle
    • all of the above happens along divergent boundaries
  4. Along divergent plate boundaries, magma formation takes place typically due to:
    • melting of the plates as they move apart as a result of frictional heating
    • increased pressure from plate movement
    • pressure being reduced (decompression melting) as the plates move apart
    • water being released under pressure which lowers the melting temperature of the overlying asthenosphere
    • hot spots, which always occur along divergent boundaries
  5. In subduction zones, magma formation takes place typically due to:
    • melting of the subducting plate as a result of frictional heating
    • increased pressure from plates colliding
    • pressure being reduced (decompression melting)
    • water being released under pressure which lowers the melting temperature of the overlying asthenosphere
    • hot spots, which always occur along subduction zones
  6. How does the addition of water cause melting?
    • it heats the rocks
    • it decreases the pressure on the rocks
    • it increases the temperature while decreasing the pressure
    • it changes the location of the liquid-solid boundary
    • None of the above
  7. The main way water gets into a subduction zone is by:
    • heating of the overlying continental crust
    • a decrease in pressure that causes melting
    • rain associated with eruptions in the island arc
    • seawater introduced into oceanic crust at the mid-ocean ridge, prior to subduction
    • all of the above
  8. What generally happens when magma from subduction zone passes through thick continental crust?
    • most magma reaches the surface with minor modification
    • the magma solidifies in sheeted dikes with a composition of basalt
    • the magma interacts with the crust, forming felsic or intermediate compositions
    • the oceanic crust melts
    • all of the above happens

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.



Review questions on controlling factors of volcanic eruption

  1. Magma viscosity is NOT controlled by the following factor:
    • Silica content
    • Temperature
    • Volatile (gas) content
    • Texture
    • All of the above factors control magma viscosity
  2. A VISCOUS material:
    • flows easily.
    • flows less easily
    • is always hot
    • is always a solid
    • is always cold
  3. Imagine two magmas that are identical in all respects (for example, same chemistry, pressure, volume) except that one magma is hotter than the other. Which magma will have the higher viscosity?
    • The hotter magma will be more viscous
    • The cooler magma will be more viscous
    • The magmas will have the same viscosity
    • There is not sufficient information to establish the relative viscosities of these magmas
    • Temperature does not affect magma viscosity.
  4. Imagine two magmas that are identical in all respects (for example, same temperature, pressure, volume) except that one magma has more silica than the other. Which magma will have the higher viscosity?
    • The magma with more silica will be more viscous.
    • The magma with less silica will be more viscous.
    • The magmas will have the same viscosity.
    • There is not sufficient information to establish the relative viscosities of these magmas.
    • Silica content does not affect magma viscosity.
  5. Which of the following factors control the nature of volcanic eruption?
    • Amount of dissolved gas in the magma
    • Temperature of the magma
    • Silica content of the magma
    • All of these
    • Only (a) and (b)
  6. What type of magma is produced when the asthenosphere starts to melt at divergent boundaries?
    • Mafic magma
    • Silicic magma
    • Intermediate magma
    • Granitic magma
    • Andesitic magma
  7. What type of magma is typically generated along mid-ocean ridges (divergent plate boundaries)?
    • mafic
    • silicic
    • intermediate
    • both silicic and intermediate
    • depends on the location of the mid-ocean ridge
  8. Which of the following settings is most likely to have basaltic magma eruptions?
    • island arcs
    • subduction beneath a thin continental plate
    • subduction beneath a thick continental plate
    • mid-ocean ridge
    • none of the above
  9. Basaltic or mafic magma (Hawaiian lava for example) forms as the result of the partial melting of
    • oceanic crust
    • continental crust
    • asthenosphere
    • outer core
    • inner core
  10. Mafic magma typically contains:
    • 25% silica
    • 50% silica
    • 75% silica
    • No silica at all
    • Some silica but there is insufficient data regarding this
  11. In principle, silicic (or felsic) magma could mix with an equal amount of mafic (or basaltic) magma to form
    • more silicic or felsic magma
    • more mafic or basaltic magma
    • more silicic or rhyolitic magma
    • Intermediate or andesitic magma
    • more mafic or gabbro type magma
  12. What type of magma is typically generated along hot spots?
    • mafic
    • silicic
    • intermediate
    • both silicic and intermediate
    • depends on the location of the hot spot
  13. What type of magma is typically generated along subduction zones?
    • ultramafic
    • mafic
    • intermediate
    • depends on the location of the subduction zone
    • magma is not generated along subduction zones, they only form mountains
  14. In most subduction zones, melting occurs approximately at a depth of:
    • 5 km
    • 10 km
    • 50 km
    • 100 km
    • 500 km
    (Hint: Refer to lab assignment #5).
  15. Mafic magmas tend to flow ___
    • at the same rate as silicic magmas
    • much faster than silicic magmas
    • much slower than silicic magmas
    • faster or slower than silicic magmas depending on the volcano
    • not enough information has been provided to answer the question
  16. During melting in the asthenosphere:
    • rocks in the source region generally are completely melted
    • partial melting produces a magma that is more felsic than the source
    • melting of the mantle generally produces felsic magma
    • melting of continental crust generally produces mafic magma
    • none of the above
  17. Eruptions of shield volcanoes fed by mafic magma tend ___
    • to be violent and potentially dangerous events
    • to be explosive but short-lived
    • not to be explosive or particularly dangerous
    • to result in the expulsion of vast amounts of tephra
    • to cover the surrounding landscape in ash

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.



Review questions for volcanoes
  1. The opening through which a volcanic eruption takes place is called:
    • vent
    • caldera
    • pipe
    • schism
    • rift
  2. A depression much larger than the original crater, formed when the volcano collapses into an empty magma chamber is called:
    • vent
    • caldera
    • basin
    • schism
    • rift
  3. The main cause of caldera formation is:
    • a fissure eruption that allows the shield volcano to split into two or more parts
    • collapse of the volcano by pyroclastic flows
    • removal of magmas that form pillow basalt
    • collapse of the roof of a magma chamber as magma erupts
    • all of the above
  4. The classic volcano shape is displayed by:
    • a composite volcano
    • a caldera
    • a fissure eruption
    • pillow basalts
    • a magma chamber
  5. Which of the following volcanoes is generally the largest?
    • scoria cone
    • dome
    • composite volcano
    • shield volcano
    • it depends on the location of the volcano
  6. Volcanoes with broad bases and gentle slopes are called:
    • Shield volcanoes
    • Stratovolcanoes (or composite cones)
    • Cinder cones (or scoria cones)
    • Mud volcanoes
    • Lava domes
  7. Volcanoes with alternate layers of lava and pyroclasts (ash and solid materials) are called:
    • Shield volcanoes
    • Stratovolcanoes (or composite volcanoes)
    • Cinder cones (or scoria cones)
    • Mud volcanoes
    • Lava domes
  8. Paricutin is an example of:
    • Shield volcanoes
    • Stratovolcanoes (or composite cones)
    • Cinder cones (or scoria cones)
    • Mud volcanoes
    • Lava domes
  9. Mount Fuji is an example of:
    • Shield volcanoes
    • Stratovolcanoes (or composite cones)
    • Cinder cones (or scoria cones)
    • Mud volcanoes
    • Lava domes
  10. Hawaiian volcanoes are examples of:
    • Shield volcanoes
    • Stratovolcanoes (or composite cones)
    • Cinder cones (or scoria cones)
    • Mud volcanoes
    • Lava domes
  11. What is the main type of eruption associated with shield volcanoes?
    • fluid lava flows
    • lava dome collapse
    • ash fall
    • eruption column
    • pyroclastic flow
  12. Composite volcanoes are so called because they:
    • are a combination of shield volcanoes, scoria cones, and other volcanoes
    • have many different types of geologic hazards
    • were first discovered on the island of Composita in Italy
    • are composed of lava flows, pyroclastic material, and mudflows
    • none of the above
  13. Active stratovolcanoes (or composite volcanoes) are most commonly found
    • along rift valleys (divergent boundaries)
    • on hot spots
    • along subduction zones
    • along continent-continent collision zones
    • in all of the geologic settings described above
  14. Explosive volcanic eruptions are mostly associated with ____________.
    • Fissure eruptions
    • Shield volcanoes
    • Flood basalts
    • Hot Spots
    • Stratovolcanoes (or composite volcanoes)
  15. The “Ring of Fire” is located:
    • Around the Pacific Ocean
    • Around the Atlantic Ocean
    • Near the Gulf Coast Zone
    • Around the Mediterranean Sea
    • Along the Red Sea rift
  16. What is a main hazard of shield volcanoes?
    • hot fragments thrown a short distance from the volcano
    • burning, building collapse, and suffocation from widely distributed pyroclastic material
    • destruction by moderately fluid lava flows that can flow far from the volcano
    • volcanic mudflows and landslides
    • relatively small pyroclastic eruptions caused by localized explosions or collapse
  17. The Hawaiian term for lava with a billowy, ropy surface is _____.
    • pahoehoe
    • aa
    • haleakela
    • poy
    • Pele's hair
  18. The Hawaiian term for lava with a jagged, rubbly surface is ______.
    • pahoehoe
    • aa
    • haleakela
    • poy
    • Pele's hair
  19. The most abundant gas emitted by a typical volcano is ___.
    • carbon dioxide
    • water vapor
    • hydrogen sulfide
    • sulfur dioxide
    • hydrochloric acid

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

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Wednesday, November 2, 2011

Here is the link to the volcano song I played in class yesterday. Enjoy!

Review questions for volcanic hazards and igneous rock textures.

  1. Volcanic ash and dust can have the effect of ___.
    • reducing the sunlight that reaches Earth's surface, suppressing photosynthetic processes
    • reducing Earth's surface temperature
    • damaging aircraft that fly through the dust
    • causing unusual weather
    • All of the previous answers are correct.
  2. A mixture of HOT gas, ash and volcanic debris travelling at high speed is called:
    • pyroclastic flow
    • mud flow
    • debris flow
    • lava flow
    • lahar
  3. The deadliest type of volcanic hazard is:
    • pyroclastic flow
    • mud flow
    • debris flow
    • lava flow
    • lahar
  4. LAHAR is another name for:
    • pyroclastic flow
    • volcanic mud flow
    • avalanche
    • lava flow
    • volcanic landslide
  5. When basaltic lava cools under water, it forms _______
    • pillow basalts
    • flood basalts
    • rift basalts
    • sheet basalts
    • regional basalts
  6. Vast outpourings of lava covering many thousands of square kilometers in multiple flows are called ___.
    • pillow basalts
    • flood basalts
    • rift basalts
    • sheet basalts
    • regional basalts
  7. Which of the following is NOT true about flood basalts?
    • they cover large areas and contain huge volumes of magma
    • they cover much of the Columbia Plateau of the Pacific Northwest
    • they are fed from large interconnected composite volcanoes
    • some flood basalts erupted at about the same time as major extinctions of species
    • all of the above are true about flood basalts
  8. A lava solidifies into nonvesicular basalt instead of vesicular basalt because:
    • the magma has a low content of gas
    • the lava forms a ropy texture
    • the lava flow breaks apart as it flows
    • the lava flow forms lava tubes
    • none of the above
  9. The most common mafic volcanic rock is
    • basalt
    • andesite
    • rhyolite
    • tuff
    • obsidian
  10. The most common intermediate volcanic rock is ___.
    • basalt
    • andesite
    • rhyolite
    • tuff
    • obsidian
  11. The most abundant silicic volcanic rock is ___.
    • basalt
    • andesite
    • rhyolite
    • tuff
    • obsidian
    (Hint: this rock has the same make-up as granites)
  12. Rhyolite is the fine-grained equivalent of this igneous rock.
    • basalt
    • andesite
    • granite
    • diorite
    • gabbro
    (This one is the same question as above, asked in a different way).
  13. The texture of an igneous rock:
    • Depends on the color (dark or light) of the rock
    • Is the shape of the rock body
    • Means how the rock “feels” when you touch it
    • Is controlled by the rate of cooling of the magma
    • Is caused by leaching
  14. Rocks that contain crystals that are roughly equal in size which can be identified without a microscope are said to exhibit this texture.
    • fine grained
    • glassy
    • porphyritic
    • coarse grained
    • pyroclastic
  15. Coarse grained igneous textures indicate that:
    • there was a lot of gas in the magma
    • the rock cooled quickly
    • the rock broke apart as it flowed
    • the rock cooled slowly
    • the ash and pumice were hot and became compacted
  16. Coarse-grained igneous rocks are interpreted to have cooled slowly from magma, and so they are called:
    • intrusive
    • reclusive
    • extrusive
    • obtusive
    • preclusive
  17. Fine-grained igneous rocks are interpreted to have cooled relatively quickly from magma, and so they are called:
    • intrusive
    • reclusive
    • extrusive
    • obtusive
    • preclusive
  18. Intrusive igneous rocks
    • Are generally fine grained
    • Form at Earth's surface
    • Are quite often vesicular
    • Are also termed volcanic
    • None of the above
  19. An igneous rock texture in which larger crystals are enclosed in a groundmass of much finer-grained material is called:
    • aphanitic texture
    • phaneritic texture
    • polyphonic texture
    • porphyritic texture
    • mylonitic texture
  20. Porphyritic rocks are interpreted to have formed ___.
    • under water
    • in mountain ranges
    • along mid-ocean ridges
    • in chill zones
    • through two or more stages of crystallization
  21. Which of the following rock types involves dissolved gas in the magma?
    • granite
    • pumice
    • gabbro
    • diorite
    • andesite
  22. Which of the following rock types does not involve dissolved gas in the magma?
    • tuff
    • pumice
    • scoria
    • diorite
    • vesicular basalt
  23. A frothy volcanic rock with so much void space that it can actually float is called
    • Obsidian
    • Tephra
    • Pumice
    • Lava
    • Tuff
  24. Which of the following is volcanic glass which forms when very viscous magma becomes solid?
    • Obsidian
    • Tephra
    • Scoria
    • Lava
    • Tuff
  25. Which of the following igneous rocks would be formed by the fastest cooling?
    • very coarse grained pegmatite
    • coarse grained granite
    • medium-grained granite
    • fine-grained granite
    • volcanic glass
  26. Which of the following igneous rocks would be formed by the slowest cooling?
    • coarse grained granite
    • medium-grained granite
    • fine-grained granite
    • volcanic glass
    • there is not enough information to tell
  27. Large crystals present in otherwise fine-grained volcanic rock are called:
    • Matrix
    • Megacrysts
    • Porphyroblasts
    • Macrolithons
    • Phenocrysts
  28. A rock composed of fine-grained pyroclastic particles is called:
    • Tuff
    • Pumice
    • Scoria
    • Rhyolite
    • Obsidian
  29. Cavities in extrusive rocks resulting from gas bubbles in the lava are called:
    • Phenocrysts
    • Matrix
    • Vesicles
    • Vascular
    • Blobs
  30. An igneous rock that contains vesicles ____________.
    • is also extrusive
    • is also fine grained
    • contains many small holes
    • all of the above
    • none of the above

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Thursday, November 3, 2011

Review questions for Intrusive igneous rocks

  1. After the flanks of a volcano are eroded, igneous rock that crystallized within the "throat" or "plumbing system" of the volcano may form ___
    • a neck
    • a sill
    • a laccolith
    • a batholith
    • a diapir
  2. A volcanic neck can form by:
    • erosion of the volcano, leaving behind the solidified conduit inside the volcano
    • erosion of overlying rock layers exposing the conduit below the volcano
    • collapse of a cave followed by the inflow of hot waters
    • all of the above
    • a and b only
  3. An Intrusive igneous rock body with two parallel surfaces cutting across other rocks is called a ____________.
    • Stock
    • Batholith
    • Laccolith
    • Dike
    • Sill
  4. An Intrusive igneous rock body with two parallel surfaces parallel to other rocks is called a ____________.
    • Stock
    • Batholith
    • Laccolith
    • Dike
    • Sill
  5. A Smaller Intrusive lens shaped igneous rock body is called a ____________.
    • Stock
    • Batholith
    • Laccolith
    • Dike
    • Sill
  6. The largest igneous intrusive body is called a ____________.
    • Stock
    • Batholith
    • Laccolith
    • Dike
    • Sill
  7. Batholiths are typically ____________.
    • Lens shaped
    • Fine grained
    • Composed of basalt (mafic magma)
    • Tabular and concordant
    • None of the above
  8. The most abundant igneous rock in continental mountain ranges is _____________.
    • Basalt
    • Granite
    • Rhyolite
    • Gabbro
    • Obsidian

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Any question posted during the period between Friday, October 28, to today, November 3 (both dates inclusive) is fair game for the next test on November 14 and November 17.

Go back to the Intro Geology course page

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Friday, November 4, 2011

Next week's lab assignments

Here is the pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of November 6). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Please print out the pre-lab and the lab from the library or use a printer with adequate toner.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Friday, November 11, 2011

Next week's lab assignments

Here is the pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of November 14). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Just so you know... you will need page 46 of your lab assignment to complete the pre-lab assignment.

Please print out the pre-lab and the lab from the library or use a printer with adequate toner.


Friday, November 18, 2011

Next week's lab assignments

Here is the pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of April 4). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Just so you know... you might need your textbook to complete the pre-lab assignment.

Please print out the pre-lab and the lab from the library or use a printer with adequate toner.

One other announcement: There will be NO MAKE-UP LAB NEXT WEEK (Thanksgiving Holiday).


The questions below are fair game for your final exam.

Now moving on to minerals.
Here is the link to The Element Song. Enjoy :)

Review questions for minerals.

  1. In order for a particular type of material to be classified as a mineral, it must _____.
    • be a solid
    • occur naturally
    • have a crystalline structure
    • have a definite chemical composition
    • All of the previous answers are correct.
  2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of minerals?
    • possess a crystalline structure
    • formed by inorganic processes
    • definite chemical composition
    • either liquid or solid
    • formed naturally
  3. Which one of the following materials is a mineral?
    • Snowflakes
    • Brick
    • Gasoline
    • Acorn (this is the seed of an oak tree)
    • Chocolate
  4. Which of the following is a mineral?
    • liquid water
    • crystals grown in a laboratory
    • volcanic glass
    • piece of wood
    • none of the above can be called a mineral
  5. The least reliable diagnostic property of minerals such as quartz is ____________.
    • hardness
    • crystal form
    • luster
    • specific gravity
    • color
  6. The tendency of minerals to break along definite smooth flat planes is called:
    • Streak
    • Cleavage
    • Fracture
    • Crystal shape
    • Luster
  7. The hardest mineral is ___.
    • copper
    • silver
    • platinum
    • gold
    • diamond
  8. The softest mineral (hardness = 1) on Moh’s hardness scale is:
    • Talc
    • Calcite
    • Quartz
    • Gypsum
    • Diamond
  9. Which one of the following minerals shows distinct crystal form but no cleavage?
    • Halite
    • Calcite
    • Orthoclase
    • Quartz
    • Muscovite
  10. If a mineral cleaves into thin sheets, it probably has:
    • no well-defined cleavage planes
    • three directions of cleavage
    • fractures rather than cleavage
    • one dominant direction of cleavage
    • none of the above
  11. Which of the following is a dark-colored silicate mineral?
    • quartz
    • potassium feldspar
    • muscovite
    • biotite
    • none of the above
  12. Which of the following is generally a light-colored silicate mineral?
    • quartz
    • pyroxene
    • amphibole
    • biotite
    • all of the above
  13. Which of the following minerals is typically green and has no cleavage?
    • muscovite
    • plagioclase feldspar
    • biotite
    • quartz
    • olivine
  14. A mineral is light colored or transparent, has a hardness of seven, and fractures rather than cleaves. What minerals is it?
    • garnet
    • quartz
    • biotite
    • muscovite
    • feldspar
  15. If the total number of electrons for a given atom is one more than the total number of protons, the atom will be ___.
    • a positive isotope
    • a negative isotope
    • a positive ion
    • a negative ion
    • neutral
  16. Which of the following largely determines an atom’s atomic weight?
    • the number of neutrons
    • the number of electrons
    • the number of electrons in the outer shell
    • the number of protons and neutrons
    • none of the above
  17. The two most abundant elements in Earth's crust are ___.
    • iron and magnesium
    • carbon and hydrogen
    • carbon and oxygen
    • hydrogen and oxygen
    • oxygen and silicon
  18. Which of the following is NOT a major class of rock-forming minerals?
    • silicates
    • carbonates
    • oxides
    • argonites
    • sulfides
  19. The most abundant mineral group within the Earth's crust and mantle is ____________.
    • Oxides
    • Carbonates
    • Sulfides
    • Halides
    • Silicates
  20. The building block of the silicate minerals is called the ____________.
    • silicon-oxygen tetrahedron
    • aluminum-silicon tetrahedron
    • silicon-oxygen octahedron
    • aluminum-silicon octahedron
    • none of these

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Review questions for silicate minerals and Bowen's reaction series.

  1. Which of the following is NOT a main type of silicate structure?
    • single chains
    • double chains
    • triple chains
    • sheets
    • frameworks
  2. Which of the following minerals contain independent silicon-oxygen tetrahedra in its lattice structure?
    • amphibole
    • feldspar
    • olivine
    • pyroxene
    • mica (biotite, muscovite, etc.)
  3. Which of the following minerals contain single chains of silicon-oxygen tetrahedra in their structure?
    • amphiboles
    • feldspars
    • olivines
    • pyroxenes
    • micas (biotite, muscovite, etc.)
  4. Which of the following minerals contain double chains of silicon-oxygen tetrahedra in their structure?
    • amphiboles
    • feldspars
    • olivines
    • pyroxenes
    • micas (biotite, muscovite, etc.)
  5. Which of the following minerals are called sheet silicates?
    • amphiboles
    • feldspars
    • olivines
    • pyroxenes
    • micas (biotite, muscovite, etc.)
  6. Which of the following minerals are called framework silicates?
    • amphiboles
    • feldspars
    • olivines
    • pyroxenes
    • micas (biotite, muscovite, etc.)
  7. Each silicon-oxygen tetrahedron in single-chain silicate minerals shares:
    • No oxygen atom
    • Two oxygen atoms
    • Alternating two and three oxygen atoms
    • Three oxygen atoms
    • Four oxygen atoms
  8. Each silicon-oxygen tetrahedron in sheet silicate minerals shares:
    • No oxygen atom
    • Two oxygen atoms
    • Alternating two and three oxygen atoms
    • Three oxygen atoms
    • Four oxygen atoms
  9. Each silicon-oxygen tetrahedron in framework silicate minerals shares:
    • No oxygen atom
    • Two oxygen atoms
    • Alternating two and three oxygen atoms
    • Three oxygen atoms
    • Four oxygen atoms
  10. Which of the following minerals belongs to the CONTINUOUS branch of the Bowen's reaction series?
    • Olivine
    • Pyroxene
    • Amphibole
    • Plagioclase feldspar
    • Biotite
  11. Which of the following minerals does not belong to the DISCONTINUOUS branch of the Bowen's reaction series?
    • Olivine
    • Pyroxene
    • Amphibole
    • Plagioclase feldspar
    • Biotite
    Hmmm... you've probably figured out that those two questions have the same answer. Just so you are familiar with two different wording to that question. So anyways...
  12. In the discontinuous reaction series, which mineral crystallizes FIRST from a cooling magma?
    • Olivine
    • Pyroxene
    • Amphibole
    • Biotite
    • Potassium feldspar
  13. In the discontinuous reaction series, which mineral forms as a result of reaction between olivine and the rest of the magma?
    • More olivine
    • Pyroxene
    • Amphibole
    • Biotite
    • Potassium feldspar
  14. In the discontinuous reaction series, which mineral forms as a result of reaction between pyroxene and the rest of the magma?
    • More olivine
    • More pyroxene
    • Amphibole
    • Biotite
    • Potassium feldspar
  15. In the discontinuous reaction series, which mineral forms as a result of reaction between amphibole and the rest of the magma?
    • More olivine
    • More pyroxene
    • More amphibole
    • Biotite
    • Potassium feldspar
  16. Which of the following is common during crystallization of a magma?
    • felsic minerals crystallize first
    • mafic minerals are light and float in most magma chambers
    • felsic crystals are heavy and sink in most magma chambers
    • all crystals form at about the same time
    • none of the above
  17. Igneous rocks like basalt and gabbro that are dark in tone and have approximately 50% silica are called:
    • felsic/silicic
    • intermediate
    • mafic
    • intrusive
    • extrusive
  18. The intrusive (coarse grained) igneous rock diorite has the same chemical composition and mineralogy as the extrusive (fine grained) igneous rock:
    • rhyolite
    • basalt
    • andesite
    • peridotite
    • granite
  19. An igneous rock that can be expected to contain large (>1 mm diameter) visible grains of quartz is:
    • Gabbro
    • Granite
    • Basalt
    • Peridotite
    • Andesite
  20. Igneous rock that are silica-deficient but high in iron and magnesium are called:
    • felsic/silicic
    • intermediate
    • mafic
    • magnetic
    • ironic
  21. The rock peridotite mostly contains:
    • Olivine
    • Pyroxene and calcium-rich plagioclase feldspars
    • Amphiboles
    • Biotite
    • Quartz and potassium feldspar
  22. The rocks gabbro or basalt mostly contains:
    • Olivine
    • Pyroxene and calcium-rich plagioclase feldspars
    • Amphiboles
    • Biotite
    • Quartz and potassium feldspar
  23. Igneous rocks that contain quartz and abundant feldspar are called:
    • felsic/silicic
    • intermediate
    • mafic
    • magnetic
    • ironic
  24. Mafic igneous rocks are enriched in ___.
    • silica
    • quartz
    • magnesium, iron and calcium
    • sodium
    • potassium
  25. Most ultramafic rocks are located ___.
    • in continental crust
    • in oceanic crust
    • in the lower crust below mountains
    • in the mantle
    • in the core

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Here is the link to A 300 Million Year Old Pennsylvanian Age Mire Forest web site maintained by the Illinois State Geological Survey.

Review questions for rock cycle and sedimentary rocks.

  1. Which of the following DOES NOT belong to the rock cycle?
    • sedimentary
    • igneous
    • metamorphic
    • meteorites
    • all of the above are part of the rock cycle
  2. Which of the following is NOT a typical environment in which a sedimentary rock forms?
    • beside glaciers
    • river channels
    • heating next to a magma
    • deep seafloor
    • shoreline of a lake
  3. Which of the following is NOT an environment in which an igneous rock forms?
    • explosive eruption of volcanic ash
    • cooling and solidification of lava
    • solidification of magma at depth
    • intense squeezing from tectonic forces
    • all of the above are environments that form igneous rock
  4. Which of the following is NOT a typical environment in which a metamorphic rock forms?
    • solidification of lava
    • heating adjacent to underground magma
    • squeezing by tectonic forces
    • burial to great depths
    • metamorphic rocks can form in all of these environments
  5. Which of the following is true about rocks and minerals?
    • a rock can contain more than one mineral
    • a mineral is composed of chemical elements
    • both rocks and minerals must be naturally formed
    • all of the above
    • a and b only
  6. Which one of the following rocks DOES NOT contain any mineral?
    • Quartz Sandstone
    • Coal
    • Granite
    • Rock salt
    • Peridotite
  7. A sedimentary rock that consists of broken pieces of rocks and/or minerals bound by cement into a rigid framework is called:
    • crystalline
    • clastic
    • biochemical
    • organic
    • recycled
  8. Which of the following is NOT involved in turning clastic sediments into sedimentary rock?
    • burial
    • compaction
    • cementation
    • metamorphism
    • all of the above are involved
  9. sedimentary rocks precipitated from water are called:
    • Hydro
    • Clastic
    • Nonclastic
    • Aquatic
    • Bioclastic
  10. Which one of the following rocks is deposited or precipitated as a result of the actions of organisms?
    • Biochemical
    • Pyroclastic
    • Hyaloclastic
    • Siliciclastic
    • Calciclastic
  11. Which of the following is an organic rock formed from the compression and alteration of plant remains such as leaves, twigs, and tree trunks?
    • Sandstone
    • Conglomerate
    • Limestone
    • Coal
    • Rock salt
  12. Clastic sedimentary rocks are formed:
    • By crystallization of molten rock
    • By cementing broken down pieces of preexisting rocks together
    • By altering preexisting rocks under heat and pressure
    • In the mantle when pressure is reduced
    • By melting preexisting rocks in the presence of water
  13. Clastic sedimentary rocks are classified based on:
    • Color
    • Type of bedding
    • Mineral composition
    • Chemical composition
    • Size and shape of sediment grains
  14. Which of the following characteristics are NOT used to classify and name clastic sediments?
    • the size of the clasts
    • the amount of sorting of clasts
    • the shape of the clasts
    • the climate in which the clasts are produced
    • all of the above are used
  15. A clastic sedimentary rock layer located far away from the source area will contain __________.
    • Coarser and more angular grains
    • Finer and more angular grains
    • Finer and more rounded grains
    • Coarser and more rounded grains
    • Both rounded and angular grains
  16. If a rock is poorly sorted, this means the rock contains:
    • mostly sand
    • a great variety of rock types as clasts
    • some angular and some rounded clasts
    • some parts that are reddish and others that are not
    • a wide range in the size of clasts
  17. Which of the following environments would likely have clasts smaller than sand?
    • a weak current
    • steep slopes
    • dunes formed by wind
    • all of the above
    • none of the above
  18. Which of the following situations would most likely result in angular clasts?
    • transport of the clasts over long distance
    • working of clasts by waves on a beach
    • steep slopes in a mountain
    • dunes formed by wind
    • none of the above situations will form angular clasts
  19. What typically happens to the size, shape, and sorting of clasts as they are transported from steep mountains toward more gentle settings?
    • the size of the clasts increases
    • the clasts become more rounded
    • the sediment becomes more poorly sorted
    • all of the above
    • none of the above
  20. Which of the following is NOT a common type of cement in sedimentary rocks?
    • calcite
    • pyroxene
    • silica
    • iron-oxide minerals
    • all of the above
  21. Which of the following is a sedimentary rock formed by the cementation of rounded gravel-sized grains?
    • Conglomerate
    • Breccia
    • Sandstone
    • Arkose
    • Cataclasite
  22. Which of the following is a sedimentary rock formed by the cementation of angular gravel-sized grains?
    • Conglomerate
    • Breccia
    • Sandstone
    • Arkose
    • Cataclasite
  23. Which one of the following rocks is NOT a clastic sedimentary rock?
    • Shale
    • Sandstone
    • Conglomerate
    • Chert
    • Breccia
  24. Carbonate sedimentary rocks that contain the solid fragments of the tests, shells or bones of organisms are called:
    • hyaloclastic
    • calciclastic
    • bioclastic
    • siliciclastic
    • pyroclastic
  25. An example of a type of limestone that precipitates from fresh water (as contrasted with precipitation from sea water) is:
    • Chert
    • Opal
    • Travertine
    • Tuff
    • Jasper
  26. An example of a hard, compact, very fine-grained (can be chemical or biochemical) sedimentary rock composed entirely of silica is ____
    • Tuff
    • Chalk
    • Chert
    • Travertine
    • Claystone
  27. Rock gypsum and rock salt are examples of sedimentary rocks called ___.
    • carbonates
    • silicates
    • phosphates
    • evaporites
    • clastics

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.
As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


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Monday, November 21, 2011

Review questions for sedimentary environment

  1. Which of the following features in a sedimentary rock can be used to interpret its depositional environment?
    • sedimentary structures
    • types of fossils
    • the types of minerals (such as halite or gypsum)
    • the size, shape and surface texture of the sedimentary grains
    • All of the above features can be used to interpret depositional environment
  2. How does a cross bed form?
    • an abrupt change in the composition of the sediment
    • a gradual decrease in the strength of the current over time
    • piling of sediment down the front of a dune or ripple
    • a gradual change in the climate
    • two glaciers that cross
  3. How does a graded bed form?
    • an abrupt change in the composition of the sediment
    • a gradual decrease in the strength of the current over time
    • piling of sediment down the front of a dune or ripple
    • a gradual change in the climate of the region
    • a gradual change in global climate
  4. Which environment is least likely to deposit sand?
    • sand dunes along a beach or in a desert
    • channel of a meandering river
    • beach along the ocean or lake
    • delta along an ocean or lake
    • open ocean away from land
  5. Climatic conditions most suitable for evaporites to form are:
    • High rainfall and humid like in the tropical countries
    • Hot and dry with very little rain and lots of evaporation (desert)
    • High mountains with very cold winters and moderate summers
    • Deep oceans near the equator
    • Climate like we see in Antarctica today
  6. A sedimentary structure that forms a polygonal pattern in a fine-grained sedimentary layer when the layer dries up because it was exposed to the air is known as _____________
    • Ripple mark
    • Cross bed
    • Burrow
    • Mud crack
    • Graded bed
  7. The direction of wind or water flow can be interpreted using _______
    • wave marks
    • ridge marks
    • ripple marks
    • mullion marks
    • burrow marks
  8. The most likely conditions under which coal beds form are:
    • Hot and dry with little rain and lots of evaporation (desert)
    • Deep ocean
    • Climate like we see in Antarctica today
    • In a swampy and boggy environment under tropical or temperate climate
    • All of the above conditions are suitable for coal formation
  9. The most likely conditions under which mud cracks form are:
    • High mountains with very cold winters and moderate summers
    • Deep ocean
    • Climate like we see in Antarctica today
    • Swampy and boggy with lots of rain
    • Some environment where mud can periodically get wet and dries out again
  10. The most likely conditions under which ripple marks form are:
    • Hot and dry with little rain and lots of evaporation (desert)
    • Beach or tidal flat with shallow water flowing over the sand
    • Deep ocean
    • Swampy and boggy environment under tropical or temperate climate
    • Some environment where mud can periodically get wet and dries out again
  11. Continental environments include all of the following except ___.
    • lake beds
    • river beds
    • glacial deposits
    • coral reefs
    • alluvial fans
  12. Which rock type is most likely to form under a high-energy environment (such as a very turbulent stream)?
    • Conglomerate
    • Shale
    • Limestone
    • Both conglomerate and shale
    • All of the above
  13. Which of the following environments would likely have large clasts (or grains)?
    • a strong current
    • steep slopes
    • dunes formed by wind
    • all of the above
    • a and b only
  14. What is the main difference between conglomerate and breccia?
    • the size of the clasts
    • the shape of the clasts
    • the sorting of the clasts
    • the kind of cement
    • all of the above
  15. One of the following pairs of terms refer to sedimentary characteristics that you would not expect to find together in the same environment of deposition. The pair that does not make sense together is ___.
    • high-energy beach, sand
    • mountain stream, angular boulders
    • quiet lagoon, mud
    • deep submarine basin, mud cracks
    • lake bottom, mud

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.
As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


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Wednesday, November 23, 2011

Review questions on metamorphism

  1. Metamorphism may involve all of the following except ___.
    • formation of new minerals
    • changes in rock texture: grain size, grain shape, foliation, et cetera
    • metasomatism
    • complete melting of the rock
    • recrystallization
  2. Which of the following does NOT cause metamorphism?
    • heating by magma
    • subduction
    • a change in stress
    • shearing at depth
    • any of the above can cause metamorphism
  3. One of the effects of temperature on parent rocks during metamorphism is:
    • Development of layering (foliation)
    • Making crystals grow larger
    • Making minerals denser
    • Making minerals orient themselves
    • Forming veins and mineral deposits
  4. Pressure applied equally to all surfaces of a substance as a result of burial or submergence is called:
    • Differential stress
    • Strain
    • Temperature
    • Confining pressure
    • Magnetism
  5. The effect of pressure (or confining pressure) on parent rocks during metamorphism is:
    • Development of layering (foliation)
    • Making crystals grow larger
    • Making minerals denser
    • Making minerals orient themselves
    • Forming veins and mineral deposits
  6. The deeper a rock is below the earth's surface _______
    • the hotter it will be.
    • the cooler it will be.
    • the cooler it will be except near a pluton or magma chamber.
    • has no influence on temperature.
    • There is no relationship between temperature and depth.
  7. Calcite marble commonly forms from the metamorphism of pre-existing ___.
    • limestone
    • dolostone
    • sandstone
    • gypsum rock
    • coal
  8. Quartzite generally forms from the metamorphism of pre-existing ___.
    • limestone
    • dolostone
    • quartz sandstone
    • quartz monzonite
    • granite
  9. Which of the following matches a sedimentary rock with a possible metamorphic equivalent?
    • sandstone – greenstone
    • basalt – marble
    • limestone – quartzite
    • shale – slate
    • none of the above
  10. Which of the following forces the constituents of a rock to become parallel to one another?
    • Pressure
    • Differential stress
    • Strain
    • Heat from a nearby pluton
    • Starch
  11. Which of the following is characterized by parallel-orientated minerals, commonly mica?
    • schist
    • granitic gneiss
    • greenstone
    • pyroxenite
    • marble
  12. A high-grade metamorphic rock whose minerals are segregated into distinct light and dark layers is called:
    • Slate
    • Phyllite
    • Schist
    • Gneiss
    • Greenstone
  13. Metamorphism occuring adjacent to a pluton when a body of magma intrudes a relatively cool country rock is called:
    • Sedimentary
    • Igneous
    • Regional
    • Burial
    • Contact
  14. When a rock has planar texture (slate, phyllite, schist) that is developed as a result of metamorphism, the rock is called ______.
    • bedded
    • stratified
    • laminated
    • foliated
    • paginated
  15. Slate generally forms from the low-grade metamorphism of ___ .
    • mudstone or shale
    • sandstone
    • limestone
    • arkose
    • breccia
  16. Metamorphism commonly associated with the development and erosion of collisional mountain ranges is called:
    • Contact
    • Regional
    • Erosional
    • Hydrothermal
    • Extraterrestrial
  17. Metamorphism that occurs through the involvement of hot water circulating through the rock is called:
    • Contact
    • Regional
    • Erosional
    • Hydrothermal
    • Conductive
  18. In what environment does low pressure-high temperature metamorphism occur?
    • near magma but at shallow levels
    • near magma but at deep levels
    • under normal conditions of burial and heating
    • in a subduction zone or accretionary prism
    • none of the above
  19. In what environment does high pressure-low temperature metamorphism occur?
    • near magma but at shallow levels
    • near magma but at deep levels
    • under normal conditions of burial and heating
    • in a subduction zone or accretionary prism
    • none of the above
  20. What is the most likely location for contact metamorphism to take place?
    • In Wisconsin Dells (Within stable continental crust)
    • In New York (within rocks that are part of an ancient mountain belt)
    • In New Orleans (within the Mississippi river delta )
    • In Hawaii (near a hot spot volcano)
    • None of the above

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.


Here is the pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of November 27). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Just so you know... you might need your textbook to complete the pre-lab assignment.

Please print out the pre-lab and the lab from the library or use a printer with adequate toner.

Happy Thanksgiving!


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

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Wednesday, November 30, 2011

Review questions on surface processes

  1. Weathering processes create sediment and ______.
    • soil
    • metamorphic rock
    • igneous rock
    • water
    • oil
  2. When water enters a crack in a rock and subsequently freezes, it has the effect of ___.
    • gluing the rock more tightly together
    • making the rock harder
    • sealing the crack thereby preventing further weathering
    • widening the crack and hastening the rock's disintegration
    • displacing surface acids that may weaken the rock
  3. Frost wedging is most likely to happen in:
    • Regions with snow in winter and rain in summer
    • Arctic regions with year round snow on the ground
    • Tropical regions with hot and humid climates
    • Deserts with dry and hot climates
    • None of the above
  4. Chemical weathering would be most effective ____________.
    • in a warm, dry climate
    • in a cold, dry climate
    • in a warm, humid climate
    • in a desert climate
    • equally in any kind of climate
  5. What sedimentary rock is composed of the most abundant product of chemical weathering?
    • sandstone
    • shale
    • limestone
    • conglomerate
    • breccia
  6. Which one of the following is not true about physical weathering?
    • produces smaller pieces
    • adds to the effectiveness of chemical weathering
    • may lead to the formation of talus slopes
    • does not change the rock's mineral composition
    • does not affect metamorphic rocks
  7. Which one of the following is not related to chemical weathering?
    • hydration
    • frost wedging
    • hydrolysis
    • oxidation
    • solution
  8. What is a common rock that can be dissolved by water and weak acids?
    • quartzite
    • quartz-rich sandstone
    • limestone
    • shale
    • all of the above
  9. What is the main process by which soils form?
    • deposition of silt on a floodplain
    • deposition of silt by the wind
    • weathering
    • erosion
    • all of the above
  10. Which of the following is NOT a controlling factor for soil formation?
    • Time
    • Climate
    • Slope
    • Heat from a magma chamber
    • Organic activity
  11. The type of soil that is developed directly atop the weathered bedrock from which the soil is derived is called a ___ soil.
    • residual
    • residential
    • regolith
    • retransported
    • retrograde
  12. Soils developed with materials carried from distant source areas by flowing wind, water or ice are called ___ soils.
    • laterite
    • bauxite
    • latitudinal
    • transported
    • residual
  13. Wind deposited silts are called ______
    • laterite
    • lahar
    • loam
    • loess
    • gelisols
  14. Plants and burrowing organisms contribute to soil development by ___
    • establishing small holes and pathways for water and nutrients to flow
    • contributing carbon dioxide and organic acids
    • contributing their waste products, which act as nutrients
    • breaking up solid particles and churning the soil profile
    • All of the previous answers are correct.
  15. What is the main force involved in the stability of slopes?
    • water pressure
    • sunlight
    • wind
    • gravity
    • radioactive decay
  16. Which of the following is NOT a common trigger for slope failure?
    • adding water to a slope
    • volcanic eruption
    • shaking during an earthquake
    • oversteepening of cliffs or hillslopes during road construction
    • all of the above are common triggers for slope failure
  17. Which of the following statements best describes slump?
    • slippage of a mass of material moving as a unit along a curved surface
    • blocks of bedrock sliding down a slope
    • a rapid flowage of debris containing a large amount of water and most common in arid, mountainous areas
    • a slow, downhill movement of soil and regolith
    • none of these
  18. Which of the following slope failures is least likely to cause casualties?
    • rock avalanche
    • debris flow
    • creep
    • rock slide
    • rock fall
  19. With every other condition being exactly the same, which one of the following scenarios is most likely to have a landslide?
    • A hill with a steep slope
    • A hill with a gentle slope
    • Flat farmland
    • All of the above
    • None of the above
  20. In areas where the daily temperature regularly varies above and below the freezing temperature of water, the freeze-thaw cycle ___.
    • facilitates soil creep
    • facilitates rock weathering
    • promotes the opening of cracks and joints in rock that may lead to rock falls
    • Answers "a" and "b" are correct, but "c" is incorrect.
    • Answers "a," "b" and "c" are all correct.
  21. When a stream, wave action, or excavation by humans undercuts the base of a slope, slope failure may occur because ___.
    • ground water will be drained out of the slope
    • the weight of the slope will have been reduced
    • The weight of the slope will have been increased
    • Down-slope support of the slope materials will have been reduced or eliminated (the slope becomes top-heavy)
    • The rocks on the slope are broken down because of the undercutting action and are more likely to slide down than unbroken rocks
  22. During construction, a slope may become less stable (or more prone to have a landslide) by all of the following except ___.
    • addition of weight to the top of the slope
    • undercutting the base of a slope
    • removing vegetation from the slope
    • draining excess water from the slope
    • steepening the slope
  23. Assuming that all other conditions are identical, buildings on a slope can:
    • Cause landslides by adding extra weight to the slope
    • Prevent landslides by firmly holding loose debris down
    • Prevent landslides because the loose rocks and debris on a slope are cleared off during construction
    • Have no influence on landslides
    • None of the above is correct
  24. The uppermost layer of a soil consisting of organic material is called the _______ horizon
    • A
    • B
    • C
    • E
    • O
  25. The soil horizon which includes incompletely weathered bedrock shards and perhaps the weathered upper surface of the bedrock is called the ______ horizon
    • A
    • B
    • C
    • E
    • O
  26. A type of soil in which the only components that have not been leached or transported out of the soil are such things as iron oxides (hematite, limonite, goethite) and aluminum oxides (for example, bauxite) is called:
    • laterite soil
    • lateral soil
    • transported soil
    • paleosol
    • pelagic soil
  27. Laterite soils are most likely to develop in:
    • Climates with high temperature and low rainfall (deserts)
    • Climates with high temperature and high rainfall (tropical climate)
    • Climates with low temperature and low rainfall (arctic climate)
    • Both in "a" and "c" but not in "b"
    • None of the above answers are correct

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.

That's it for today. As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


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Friday, December 2, 2011

Here is the pre-lab assignment for next week's lab. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to lab next week (Week of December 5). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for next week. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab next week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Just so you know... you might need your textbook to complete the pre-lab assignment.

Please print out the pre-lab and the lab from the library or use a printer with adequate toner.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

Go back to my Main page


Monday, December 5, 2011

Here are questions on fossils, correlation, relative and numeric age dating. I have not covered everything in class yet, but you can go ahead and start working on the questions.

Review questions on time and geology

  1. "The present is the key to the past." This statement relates to ____________.
    • Catastrophism
    • Uniformitarianism
    • Aristotle's hypothesis
    • William Smith's theory
    • None of the above
  2. Which relative dating principle states that fragments included in a host rock are older than the host rock?
    • principle of inclusion
    • principle of exclusion
    • principle of cross-cutting relationship
    • principle of lateral continuity
    • principle of superposition
  3. Which relative dating principle states that the youngest layer in a sedimentary rock sequence is on the top of the sequence and the oldest layer is at the bottom of the sequence?
    • principle of inclusion
    • principle of original horizontality
    • principle of cross-cutting relationship
    • principle of lateral continuity
    • principle of superposition
  4. The principle of cross-cutting relationship states that:
    • the older layers in an undeformed sedimentary rock sequence will be at or near the bottom of the sequence
    • all sedimentary rock layers were originally horizontal
    • if fragments of rock "A" is found within rock "B", then rock "A" is older than rock "B"
    • all sedimentary rock layers originally extended in all directions
    • if a sequence of sedimentary rock is disrupted by a fault or an igneous intrusion, then the fault or the igneous intrusion is younger than the disrupted layers
  5. Fossils are common in:
    • volcanic igneous rocks
    • plutonic igneous rocks
    • metamorphic rocks
    • sedimentary rocks
    • all rock types
  6. Which one of the following is NOT a fossil?
    • an insect trapped in amber 20 million years ago
    • a frozen mammoth preserved in a glacier in Siberia that died in the last ice age 1 million years ago
    • dinosaur footprints in a sandstone layer
    • an Egyptian death mask dating back to 4000 years
    • all of the above are fossils by definition
  7. Which one of the following organisms is MOST LIKELY to be fossilized? (hint: think under normal circumstances)
    • a butterfly in your garden
    • a seashell on a beach
    • a slug on a leaf
    • a single-celled bacteria
    • none of the above will ever become a fossil
  8. An index fossil must be:
    • limited to a particular region
    • very rare
    • long-lived in terms of geologic time
    • easily identifiable in the field
    • all of the above
  9. A very short-lived, geographically widespread fossil species that existed during a specific interval of geologic time is called _______.
    • assemblage fossil
    • range fossil
    • age fossil
    • interval fossil
    • index fossil
  10. Which of the following is NOT a way in which fossils can be preserved?
    • they can be replaced by hard materials, such as silica
    • they can be buried and decay, leaving a cavity in the rock
    • they can be preserved in ancient tree sap
    • they can be too small to see but can build diagnostic features in the rocks
    • all of the above are ways a fossil can be preserved
  11. What factors are the most critical in determining whether a fossil is preserved?
    • the age of the fossil and the age of sediments in which it is preserved
    • the temperature of the granite and how fast it cooled
    • whether the creature had hard parts and how fast it was buried
    • the color of the original organism compared to the color of the sediments in which it is found
    • whether the creature was a predator or was prey
  12. Which of the following features look like fossils but are not?
    • footprints from dinosaurs and other creatures
    • burrows excavated by worms and other creatures and filled by other sediment
    • leaves and other plants formed on land
    • dark minerals that grow in branching patterns
    • all of the above are fossils
  13. An erosional surface that represents a gap in the geologic record is called:
    • basal conglomerate
    • unconformity
    • boundary layer
    • lamination
    • marker horizon
  14. an erosional surface between a plutonic igneous or metamorphic rock and sedimentary (or volcanic) rock is called:
    • disconformity
    • basal conglomerate
    • nonconformity
    • angular unconformity
    • marker horizon
  15. An erosional surface separating parallel sedimentary rock layers is called:
    • disconformity
    • basal conglomerate
    • nonconformity
    • boundary layer
    • angular unconformity
  16. When tilted or folded sedimentary rocks are overlain by more flat-lying strata, it is known as:
    • A disconformity
    • An angular unconformity
    • A nonconformity
    • A conformity
    • None of the above
  17. How does an angular unconformity form?
    • rocks are folded into an angle and the top is removed by faulting
    • older rocks are tilted, eroded, and overlain by younger rocks
    • rock layers are turned upside down at an angle
    • angular rocks are deposited on top of flat-lying layers
    • any of the above
  18. The time it takes for a given amount of radioactive isotope to be reduced by half is called:
    • atomic life
    • atomic mass life
    • atomic spin life
    • nuclear magnetic life
    • half life
  19. After TWO half lives:
    • 50% of the parent isotope will remain
    • 25% of the parent isotope will remain
    • 12.5% of the parent isotope will remain
    • 6.125% of the parent isotope will remain
    • All parent isotope will be gone
  20. How many half lives must elapse before 75% of parent isotope becomes daughter isotope?
    • One half life
    • Two half lives
    • Three half lives
    • Four half lives
    • Not enough information given to answer this question
  21. The half life of an isotope is 10,000 years. If 12.5% of the parent isotope remains in the rock by the time it is dated, how old is the rock?
    • 10,000 years
    • 20,000 years
    • 30,000 years
    • 40,000 years
    • Not enough information given to answer this question
  22. Radiocarbon is ____________.
    • carbon-12
    • carbon-13
    • carbon-14
    • both carbon-13 and carbon-14
    • none of these
  23. Radiocarbon dating is useful in dating event that occurred within the past________.
    • 4 thousand years
    • 40 thousand years
    • 400 thousand years
    • 4 million years
    • 40 million years
  24. Based on current data, the age of Earth is about ____________.
    • 2 billion years
    • 4.6 million years
    • 16 million years
    • 4.6 billion years
    • 195 million years

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.

Rest of the questions for your final exam will be up here soon.
As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

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Friday, December 9, 2011

Next week's lab assignments

Here is the Pre lab assignment for the week of December 12. You must print out this assignment, complete it before lab, and bring it with you to the lab (Week of April 24). You will NOT be allowed to do the lab otherwise.

Here is the lab assignment for the week of December 12. Please print out this assignment and bring it to lab that week. You will complete this during the lab session.

Just so you know... you might need your textbook to complete the pre-lab assignment.

Please print out the pre-lab and the lab from the library or use a printer with adequate toner.

Remember, there will be no Make-up lab next week.


Couple of annoucements:

Patrick Samson found this news article about a retreating glacier. This is pretty much what we have been talking about in class. Thanks, Patrick!

I have posted a 5-point extra credit assignment on D2L.

Moving on to the questions. Here are the rest of the questions for your final. there will be 50 questions on the final instead of the usual 25.

Review questions for glaciers (Chapter 14 of your text).

  1. Which one of the following is NOT true of glaciers?
    • originate on land
    • exist only in the Northern Hemisphere (North of the equator)
    • show evidence of past or present flow
    • form from the recrystallization of snow
    • all of the above are true facts
  2. What happens to snowflakes as they become progressively buried within glaciers?
    • they become less dense because of large amounts of trapped air
    • they begin to melt as they are insulated from the cold air
    • they become interlocking crystals of ice
    • they can become bluish because of trapped air
    • both c and d
  3. The upper part of a glacier, the part with perennial snow and ice, is called the ___.
    • zone of accumulation
    • zone of wastage
    • zone of ablation
    • recharge zone
    • discharge zone
  4. When a glacier recedes, it ___.
    • flows back toward its source area
    • ablates faster than its volume is replenished by snowfall
    • is experiencing a positive snow/ice balance
    • flows faster
    • accumulates faster than it ablates
  5. Most glaciers move___.
    • primarily by sliding along faults in the ice
    • primarily by plastic flow or creep, like silly putty
    • only by sliding along the base of the glacier
    • primarily by opening up cracks or crevasses
    • as a rigid block, with all parts moving in the same direction at the same velocity
  6. Open fissures that develop in the brittle surface ice of glaciers are called:
    • crevasse
    • cirque
    • joint
    • crevice
    • fault
  7. Which of the following is NOT a type of evidence left behind by glaciers?
    • scratched and polished bedrock
    • scattered stones (dropstones) in fine-grained sediment
    • changes in the isotopic compositions of marine shells
    • V-shaped valleys
    • all of the above are evidence left behind by glaciers
  8. What is the shape of a valley formed due to glacial erosion?
    • S-shaped valley
    • U-shaped valley
    • V-shaped valley
    • Y-shaped valley
    • I-shaped valley
  9. A sharp peak that remains after cirques have cut back into a mountain from several sides is called:
    • arête
    • horn
    • inselberg
    • cirque
    • tarn
  10. Sharp bedrock ridges sculpted between two glacially eroded valleys are called:
    • tarns
    • cirques
    • arêtes
    • cairns
    • moraines
  11. A steep-sided half-bowl shaped recess carved at the head of a mountain glacial valley is called:
    • fiord
    • hanging valley
    • arête
    • cirque
    • roche mountonnée
  12. A boulder transported by a glacier that was not derived from the underlying bedrock is called:
    • clast
    • esker
    • nunatak
    • erratic
    • inselberg
  13. Depressions left in till when imbedded blocks of ice left over from a receding glacier melted are called:
    • arêtes
    • horns
    • drumlins
    • roche moutonnées
    • kettles
  14. Elongated low mounds of till formed along the sides of valley glaciers are called:
    • Lateral morraine
    • Proximal morraine
    • Distal morraine
    • Medial morraine
    • Terminal morraine
  15. What does a terminal moraine represent?
    • the end of a polished and scratched segment of bedrock
    • the sharp ends of a jagged ridge formed by glaciers
    • the end of an ice sheet that is floating in the sea
    • a pile of sediment deposited at the end of the glacier
    • the final time that two glaciers come together
  16. The end moraine marking the farthest advance of a glacier is called:
    • terminal morraine
    • medial morraine
    • lateral morraine
    • recessional morraine
    • boundary morraine
  17. The end moraine built while the end of a glacier was temporarily stationary is called:
    • terminal morraine
    • medial morraine
    • lateral morraine
    • recessional morraine
    • boundary morraine
  18. A layer of till deposited as the front of a glacier retreats is called:
    • ground moraine
    • outwash plain
    • valley train
    • recessional moraine
    • esker
  19. A streamlined hill of till that has been remolded beneath a glacier is called:
    • roche moutonnée
    • moraine
    • drumlin
    • esker
    • kame
  20. If the steep side (the "flat" end) of a drumlin is on the northeast, it indicates that the glacier advanced from:
    • southwest
    • southeast
    • northwest
    • northeast
    • none of these
  21. An S-shaped deposit formed by glacial meltwater is called:
    • oscar
    • moraine
    • drumlin
    • esker
    • varve
  22. Large quantities of meltwater that run away from the melting edge of a glacier may deposit ________.
    • fluvial
    • alluvial
    • discharge
    • outwash
    • pediment
  23. The last episode of glaciation happened:
    • 5-10 thousand years ago
    • 10-21 thousand years ago
    • 50-60 thousand years ago
    • 100-115 thousand years ago
    • 2-3 million years ago
  24. A viable hypothesis regarding the cause of ice ages MUST be able to explain:
    • Why do Ice Ages occur in cyclical periods
    • Why do glaciers during ice ages move towards the ocean
    • Why most of the geologic time has been free from extensive ice ages
    • All of the above
    • Only "a" and "c" and not "b"
  25. In 1921, Milutin Milankovitch suggested that the primary controls on the timing of glacial periods are related to:
    • the motion of Earth's plates
    • the emission of greenhouse gases
    • variations in Earth's orbit, tilt and wobble relative to the sun
    • variations in the intensity of the sun's radiation output
    • variations in the circulation of water in the ocean basins
  26. How could changes in Earth’s tilt influence global climate?
    • A high angle of tilt causes snow and ice to fall off the planet
    • A minimum angle of tilt causes high latitudes to receive less sunlight during the summer, causing an increase in glaciers
    • A maximum angle of tilt causes Earth to reflect more sunlight into space, causing an increase in glaciers
    • A high angle of tilt causes the continents to move away from the poles leading to more glaciers
    • Earth's tilt does not influence global climate
  27. A decrease in the atmospheric CO2 content cannot be the sole viable cause for the Ice Ages because:
    • Atmospheric CO2 content has no influence whatsoever in global climate change
    • Atmospheric CO2 content does not increase or decrease in a cyclic manner
    • CO2 can only increase global temperature, not cause ice ages
    • All of the above reasons are correct
    • None of the above reasons are correct
  28. Which of the following may have contributed to climatic changes related to the Ice Age?
    • plate movements
    • wobbling of Earth's axis
    • variations in the shape of Earth's orbit
    • all of these
    • none of these
  29. Which one of the following is NOT a direct effect of the last Ice Age?
    • Moraines and drumlins in the Midwestern States
    • The great Lakes
    • The fertile soil in the Midwestern states
    • The drainage pattern of the Mississippi-Missouri River system
    • All of the above are direct results of the last Ice age
  30. when the land surface slowly rises after the weight of glacial ice is removed by melting is called:
    • Mountain building
    • Sea level rise
    • Global warming
    • Isostatic rebound
    • Greenhouse effect
  31. What happens to the land surface when large ice sheets melt away?
    • it subsides because there is less ice on top
    • the land surface remains unchanged but seems lower because of the loss of ice
    • the land flexes upward due to isostatic rebound
    • the land rises because the rocks are warmer without the ice
    • none of the above happens
  32. Large lakes that developed as a result of a cooler, wetter climate during the glacial period, in areas that might be quite arid today are called:
    • kettle
    • cirque
    • playa
    • pluvial
    • finger
  33. Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding glacial deposits?
    • drift refers to any glacial deposit
    • outwash deposits are layered and sorted
    • till is well-sorted sediment
    • erratics are rocks deposited by a glacier
    • All of the above are true regarding glacial deposits

You can test yourself here and find the correct answers to these questions.

Any question posted during the period between November 18 to December 9 (both dates inclusive) is fair game for the final exam.

As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


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Tuesday, December 13, 2011

No lecture tomorrow,December 14. I have finished the syllabus.

The lab session, however, will be held tomorrow during the regularly scheduled time. I will be available in my office during the regular lecture hour if you need to get a hold of me.


As always, e-mail me if you have any questions.


Go back to the Intro Geology course page

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This page was last updated on Monday, January 17, 2011 at 2:05 pm